If so, then why?

  • BobaFuttbucker@reddthat.com
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    9
    arrow-down
    3
    ·
    7 months ago

    Question: How the shit does the US legal system claim that “High crimes and Misdemeanors” disqualifies someone from being President, but 34 FELONIES is ok?

    Answer: because the people in charge don’t care.

    I’m glad he’s been convicted but any idiot can see that this should disqualify him.

    • Hawk@lemmy.dbzer0.com
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      7 months ago

      I just don’t get how someone convicted for ELECTION FRAUD can still be a presidential candidate

    • mctoasterson@reddthat.com
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      7 months ago

      It’s because the mechanism for adjudicating the high crimes and misdemeanors resides in the legislative branch. They have to adopt articles of impeachment and then convict and remove the President.

      If any state crime felonies could automatically disqualify a candidate it would create perverse incentives that should not reside within the power of one state, because of the abuse potential. For example, Texas could drag Biden into court on felony jaywalking charges.